I was watching Any Day Now, and came upon this topic...AGAIN!
What do you think? Is this discrimination?
An employee with child(ren) uses "job time" or time away from the job to take care of child(ren), you know what you parents do, doctor appointments, practice, etc. etc.
Yet, an employee without child(ren) wants to use his or her "job time" or time away from the job to take care of his or her business.
Also, the employee without the child(ren) has to do the job of the employee with the child(ren). When the childless employee stops or refuses to do the job, this employee is fired.
Is this discrimination?
I think with situations like these, that people without children are often "used". I know at my school, colleagues always say, well, I can't do this because I have kids. Or, Ms.AKA2d can do this, she doesn't have any kids. EXCUSE THE FREAK OUT OF ME!
Then, there was an instance where a student was hurt near the end of the day and I had to go to the hospital. I had to ride in the ambulance because the "others" had responsibilities and could not make the trip to the hospital.

Because of A, B, C, or D. Heck, I have responsibilities, too. It might not include another individual, but hell, I have things to do, too!