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The underlying assumption in making their conclusion is not valid, in my opinion. That underlying assumption is that since the students at the private school have higher GPAs, it has to be due to grade inflation. Is it possible that they have significantly smaller class sizes, higher caliber professors and more stringent GPA admission requirements in the first place? While the SAT score is supposed to be the equalizing factor, is it possible that a lot of kids who had good SAT scores but lousy GPAs could only get into the public school?
I hate when research makes causal statements based on correlations alone. There are correlations that students at private schools get better grades than students at public schools. How can the assumption be that it's due to grade inflation?
ETA: Maybe a better test would be how they do on the GRE or GMAT after they've completed four years of education. Perhaps they do better.
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