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01-08-2009, 11:18 AM
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As someone who works in this field, I do not find this story shocking.
You'd be surprised to see what some folks think gives them leverage in a divorce trial.
I'd be surprised to see him get anything here though because organs, as far as I know, have no cash value.
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01-08-2009, 11:23 AM
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Isn't making a monetary demand for a transplanted organ the equivalent of selling it?
I thought selling human body parts is illegal in all states.
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01-08-2009, 02:03 PM
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GreekChat Member
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Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Who you calling "boy"? The name's Hand Banana . . .
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sageofages
Isn't making a monetary demand for a transplanted organ the equivalent of selling it?
I thought selling human body parts is illegal in all states.
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It's most certainly not the equivalent of selling it.
Think about it like this: through the Courts, we're allowed (indeed, required) to put a monetary value on a person's life in cases such as wrongful death or negligence. This is not the equivalent of selling a person - valuation is not the same as transacting.
With that said, Kevin's exactly right - it's a leverage ploy, although it may require a judicial decision on what constitutes "property" in their home state (for purposes of marriage/divorce). It's actually really interesting for nerds like me.
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01-08-2009, 12:21 PM
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GreekChat Member
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Join Date: Apr 2004
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kevin
I'd be surprised to see him get anything here though because organs, as far as I know, have no cash value.
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Would it constitute sale of an organ, which is illegal?
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01-08-2009, 12:32 PM
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GreekChat Member
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Join Date: May 2002
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Quote:
Originally Posted by alphagamzetagam
Would it constitute sale of an organ, which is illegal?
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No. It would only be a sale if he made payment a condition of the donation to begin with.
Sounds more like he's treating it as marital property that should be taken into account in any division and distribution of the couple's assets.
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01-08-2009, 01:07 PM
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GreekChat Member
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Join Date: May 2007
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MysticCat
No. It would only be a sale if he made payment a condition of the donation to begin with.
Sounds more like he's treating it as marital property that should be taken into account in any division and distribution of the couple's assets.
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Good point and usually...when you do that...it's a gift.
Gift of Life.
I could be wrong tho.
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