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Old 08-11-2005, 07:13 PM
irishpipes irishpipes is offline
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Right, but as you said, he often spoke in parables and used symbolism so why in other areas of the bible does the Catholic church say it's symbolism, but for this part it's literal? Also, as the link provided before pointed out, Christ also "identified the drink as “this fruit of the vine” (v. 29)." So he was saying it literally was wine. He couldn't have been more clear.
When Jesus spoke in parables, He always followed them with lieral interpretation to ensure that His meaning was clear. He does no such thing at the Last Supper, nor gives any other indication that He was being symbolic.

Interestingly, the "fruit of the vine" is still an important distinction in the Catholic Church today. The altar wine which is used in the consecration MUST by "fruit of the vine" - it cannot be apple wine or other such that is not grown on a vine.
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