What does it say in your by-laws?

[angels&angles]

Originally Posted by AzTheta

How can people say "this is how to pronounce Latin words"? No one has ever heard it spoken that is living today (I'm not attacking you personally, angels&angles! OK?). The written language form is all we have, and we all know that written language is nothing like spoken language.

I could get into a long linguistics post, but I won't. No one cares except for the other SLPs and linguists on GC. They already know what I would say, anyway. *yawn*

Oh yeah, absolutely. I'm just parroting what I was taught. I think it does have something to do with linguistics and what we "know" was spoken in similar languages at the time. And also getting the rhyme and meter of Ovid's work and similar to mesh. I find it fascinating.

I'm really not sure when it was decided that there was no "v" or "ch" sound in Classical Latin. Fairly recently (last 30-50 years maybe), I think.

[MysticCat]

Originally Posted by Titchou

Or we could go back to the Great Vowel Shift and really gum up the works!

Ha! Very true.

Originally Posted by angels&angles

I'm really not sure when it was decided that there was no "v" or "ch" sound in Classical Latin. Fairly recently (last 30-50 years maybe), I think.

I know from relatives that the no "v" or "ch" sound was being taught at least 100 years ago. My understanding is that the "ch" sound in Latin is the product of Church Latin. Church Latin tends in many respects to follow the rules of Italian, and in Italian, "c" before "e" or "i" = "ch."

Back in my voice major days, we had to take a class in Latin pronunciation. The people who had taken Classical Latin in high school always had a harder time getting the hang of Church Latin (which was obviously the main focus, given the amount of sacred music in Latin) because of the differences. And on the flip side, people who had learned Church Latin first had a harder time getting the hang of Classical Latin.