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Originally Posted by DrPhil
I can see both sides of the issue. I think the court did what makes sense and sets a good precedent given the context.
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I agree.
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The test wasn't deemed discriminatory by intent. It was exclusionary by outcome.
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What do you mean by this? I don't understand.
I mean, I can see where the test was not meant to be discriminatory, but how was the outcome exclusionary, based on race, I presume?