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Does it matter that they were married in Texas? Is the law the same? That's something I don't quite understand. Since they didn't sign a pre-nup, does he get half under CA law b/c that's where they live & filed or does it fall under Texas law since that's where they got married?
I truly don't understand these situations. Can anyone explain?
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By the time a woman realizes her mother was right, she has a daughter who thinks she is wrong.
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