I thought sexual promiscuity was a
delayed reaction to rape or abuse?
Its been a while since I studied that, but if she was promiscious a day after her "attack" wouldn't it be more likely a sign of an earlier abusive encounter?
Just asking for clarification.
PS. I don't think her having sex the next day doesn't mean she wasn't raped. I don't know if there is a high correlation.
Also, the definition of rape has softened a bit over the years. So it might be less tramautic for her to have had a sexual situation go farther than she intended but where actual force or fear wasn't applied, versus some girl being forced at knife, gun point, or beaten into submission.
Quote:
Originally posted by sugar and spice
Actually, it's not only quite probable, but quite common. Anybody who has studied/worked with rape victims before knows that two very common reactions for rape victims are either:
1) to become afraid of sex/touch and not engage in it (this is the reaction most people think of) OR
2) to become promiscuous (the theory is that these women are trying to gain the control over the act of sex that they lost when they were raped . . .)
The second reaction is much more common than most people realize.
I have no idea what role that plays in the Kobe case because I haven't been following it closely in a long time, but it wouldn't surprise me in the slightest if she had slept with someone else that soon, and I doubt it would surprise most people who work with rape victims on a regular basis, either.
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