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Here's the question: PNM gets to preference parties with houses A and B remaining. She is a legacy to B, but her first choice is A. She ranks A (#1) and then B (#2). She is matched with B (her legacy house). She assumes that A filled their list before getting to her name. However, A is now participating in informal (so presumably did not take quota). As a legacy she would have been on B's first list. Would she have had to SIP to get A or would that have hurt her odds by not maximizing her options?
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