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Old 06-22-2012, 12:44 AM
DeltaBetaBaby DeltaBetaBaby is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MysticCat View Post
A) Yes, I'm quite familiar with those passages.
B) Jesus wasn't talking about anything. It was Paul, John and the writer of Hebrews who use the term.
C) None of them said "babe" because none of them spoke English. It was the translators of the King James Version who translated teknion and paidion as "babes."
D) Few if any modern translations use "babes"; they use "infants" instead. There is a very good reason for that -- in contemporary American English "babe" is almost never used to mean "infant" and typically carries a romantic or sexual connotation.
E) Anyone using "babe" or "babes" or {shudder} "babez" in contemporary America should anticipate that most people will read or hear it exactly the way people in this thread have.
Oh, SNAP!

Also, Christbacca (courtesy of The Oatmeal):

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