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Originally Posted by SWTXBelle
Right.
But I'm still confused as to how the same-sex marriages BEFORE Prop. 8 can be recognized - that would seem to class homosexuals into two different groups, and that can't be right, er, constitutional. What am I missing?
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That same-sex marriages were constitutional between the previous Supreme Court decision declaring prohibition of same-sex marriages unconstitutional and the ratification of Prop 8. The same-sex marriages entered into prior to Prop 8 were legal. The court basically said that they cannot now be illegal -- that they are grandfathered in, so to speak.