[RACooper]

Originally Posted by EE-BO

You reference Residential Schools and the public school system. Again- a smokescreen. The Catholic Church is run by a SINGLE power structure with very tight control.

Hence my use of the example of the Residential School system - a single power structure of government control with orders or branches administered by different denominations.

No single entity controls ALL the public schools or Residential Schools or whatever. So this argument is meaningless.

Ahhhh I see, my point flys directly against yours so therefore it must be disregarded - it's inconvenient I guess when people answer your challenge to name an organization other than the Catholic Church that has suffered the stain of child abuse.

And now to get to DSTCHAOS's wise remarks- RACooper, I am not going to play this game anymore with you since you are that guy on every message board and in every company meeting who says other people are wrong, but yet you never offer a solution of your own.

I did - you said it was only the Catholics that facilitated child abuse, and that the other denominations and even other faiths were free of this guilt. I called you on it, presented a point of reference refuting your assertion, you just chose not to acknowledge it... guess that makes you the guy at the office you hate huh?

Being a "scholar" as you claim- you know the work I am talking about. And you know La Celestina, La Lozana Andaluza and Don Quixote are the 3 best known texts involved.

Neat who knew that works of fiction could now be cited as historical academic sources - damn this would have made all my papers so much easier...

And while I appreciate that literature is not the same as non-fiction, history is very clear on the value of literature- taken with a grain of salt- when it comes to reporting historical injustice. Are you familiar with the works of Charles Dickens or Mark Twain?

Yes - yet they don't seem to be used as historic sources, nor as singular sources in examining a historical era - only ONE of MANY sources from which to construct a picture, and only then supported by academic/historic sources... basically they "flesh out" the factual accounts, but they certainly don't supersede them.

What is specifically interesting about Spanish Literature of the era is that almost all of it criticizes the church very heavily. Dickens and Twain were somewhat unique for their eras, but I don't know of any other several hundred year period in history where virtually all works of literature were so directly critical of a single politically powerful entity that had an endurance beyond a single leader.

Actually I'm sure if you had actually conducted "research" into the middle and late Mediæval period of Spanish literature you'd have noticed the decidedly pro-Church stance they take - lauding El Cid, tales of wander of "godly" minstrels, tales of the wise/benevolent wandering friars, saints lives, etc. Progressing into the Renaissance an entire genre of "religious literature" is firmly established and even being exported - in fact the decidedly pro-Church nature of this "religious literature" genre was one of the big things the English pointed to in decrying Spain and Catholicism during the Reformation.

This is meaningful, and I have given some indication of why I think that.

Ironically it is meaningful, but not for the reasons you think - it is more revealing of your particular bias/bigotry than it is of the scope of Spanish culture and literature...

You may be very highly educated, but I see no evidence you are a scholar at heart. About the only thing you have shown so far in this debate is that you know how to work your keyboard to spell medievel correctly with the fancy little symbol.

I answered your challenge... not my fault that you couldn't raise a credible defense and therefore dismissed it lest you argument collapse and I prove my point about bias/bigotry right?

So you at least get an A for grammar.

That'd be a first...