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					Originally Posted by  Kevin
					 
				 
				Would it be medically possible that the woman had twins and the doctor negligently only aborted one of the fetuses without doing the pre-op procedures Monet just mentioned? 
 
I realize that this may be a really, really stupid question. 
			
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 There is a case in the UK of this happening.  A woman had one of the fetuses aborted, but the second one was missed somehow...  She sought and won money for the expenses incurred, if I remember correctly.
Edit: I should read all replies before posting.