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Two thoughts:
First, I remember (and it's been a few years) a couple torts cases that I feel are somewhat analogous. A man had an unsuccessful vasectomy and sued the doctor when he had a(nother) child. His suit was dismissed I believe. My torts professor said that no court has allowed a suit for “wrongful birth.”
Second, the timetable seems suspicious to me. She finds out she is pregnant in March, has abortion in April, and has baby in December (almost exactly 8 months after the abortion). Is it possible that the baby is not the same one that was aborted (that she got pregnant again almost immediately)?
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