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Originally posted by BetteDavisEyes
Does it matter that they were married in Texas? Is the law the same? That's something I don't quite understand. Since they didn't sign a pre-nup, does he get half under CA law b/c that's where they live & filed or does it fall under Texas law since that's where they got married?
I truly don't understand these situations. Can anyone explain?
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The state of residence is what governs, not where you got married.
If there's no pre-nup, California is a community property state, so what's hers is 1/2 his, and vice versa.
[disclaimer: this is not a legal opinion. i am not licensed to practice law in the state of California
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