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Thanks for trying to explain it Docet but it still seemed a little weird to me.
Check it.
Yanks and Red Sox come into this series with the Yanks up 1 game & with the Yanks leading the season series 9-7. Yanks lose 1st game.
Red Sox and Yanks are all tied up however with the Yanks leading the season series 9-8 now.
Yanks win game 2. Yanks go up 1 game again, and now they clinch the season series 10-8. Even if they lose the last game and they still win the season series even though both teams have identical records.
But, according to THIS...if the Yanks and Red Sox split the last two games then there would be a one game playoff to determine the winner of the division. Ok but why are the Yankees declared the winner of the division already? Obviously they won the clinched the division based on the head to head games.
And Also, even if the Yanks, Red Sox and Indians all finished with identical records, there never would have been a need for a tie breaker between the Yanks and the Red Sox to determine the division. Why? Because well, the Yanks won based on head to head games. So the only one game playoff that would be needed would have to be between the Indians and Red Sox. BUT, why wouldn't they just go on head to head games between the Red Sox and Indians?
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