[KSig RC]

Originally posted by Tickled Pink 2
Sidebar: Considering the fact that crime has gone down (http://jurist.law.pitt.edu/gazette/2...istics-fbi.php) , but poverty has gone up (http://www.census.gov/hhes/www/pover...4/pov04hi.html), is it safe to say the poor aren't the ones committing the most crimes?

Actually, no - global decreases in crime can come from a variety of sources. The real test would be whether the percentage of total crimes committed by the impoverished has dropped versus previous - this would imply (although not prove) causation.