APhiAnna |
03-19-2010 08:50 PM |
Quote:
Originally Posted by DrPhil
(Post 1908839)
Yep because "racist" comes with majority power dynamics that not everyone has access to.** It is not synonymous with bigotry and prejudice.
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[Warning: hijack...not that this hasn't been hijacked already.]
I've heard this argument a lot, and to an extent I agree with it. Racism as defined in the dictionary is broad enough to include all hatred of race, but in academic contexts it differs from prejudice in that you have to hold power to be racist.
I agree that culturally, politically and commercially, whites are the majority power in this country and you could make the argument that by withholding opportunities from other races they are racist, and that the other races do not hold that majority power so they cannot be racist.
What is the nuance I am missing though...say a white person wants to join a group, organization or even just wants to belong in a more intangible aspect of society and is rejected purely because of their race? For example, what if after years of service a white person wanted to run for deacon of a historically black church, join a culturally Chinese dance group or pledge a Latino fraternity? Are these not institutions where a different race is the majority power? Obviously they would have to be qualified in all of these cases and we as whites should not expect an "automatic pass"...we have to be just as qualified. But if the congregation decided that they did not want a white deacon in a historically black church and that was the only theoretical flaw (ie, equal time spent in the church, positions held, etc), how would that not be a majority power of one race withholding from another...aka racism?
I am not saying I disagree, I just want to know what nuance I am missing that would differentiate one majority power from the other...this argument seems to be theorizing that power majority only matters at a macro-level and not a micro-level to be racist, and I am not sure I understand why.
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